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Biology 116
Review Questions - EXAM I - IV
Review questions are great learning tools if they are used properly and wisely. Be warned that these questions will NOT be seen on actual exams. I recommend that you take advantage of on-line testing, a resource that accompanies your text. You can find the site under "LINKS" on the Biology 116 page.

EXAM I

  1. Which of the following is NOT a property of blood?
    • Acidic pH
    • 38 degrees Centigrade
    • Specific gravity slightly greater than water
    • Volume of 4.5 - 6.0 liters

  2. If erythrocytes are placed in a hypotonic fluid, they will:
    • undergo hemolysis
    • crenate
    • undergo cell division
    • stick to the capillary walls

  3. Identify the first step in the process of hemostasis.
    • coagulation
    • fibrinolysis
    • vascular spasm
    • platelet phase

  4. Identify the cell which will become a macrophage outside of blood.
    • neutrophil
    • erythrocyte
    • basophil
    • monocyte

  5. The two classes of formed elements in blood include:
    • macromolecules and colloids
    • fibrinogens and albumins
    • granulocytes and agranulocytes
    • erythrocytes and leukocytes

  6. All of the following are plasma proteins EXCEPT:
    • fibrinogen
    • albumins
    • globulins
    • All of the above are plasma proteins

  7. Which of the following DOES NOT apply to white blood cells?
    • they are produced in the bone marrow
    • production of new cells is called leukopoiesis
    • all white blood cells have a phagocytic function
    • they may be classified as granulocytes and agranulocytes

  8. Megakaryocytes
    • release substances during an allergic reaction
    • are large cells that produce platelets
    • become macrophages
    • All of the above are correct

  9. When a blood plasma antibody recognizes its specific RBC antigen, what will occur?
    • the cells to repel one another, thus spacing themselves out in the blood.
    • the blood type will change from that of the antibody to that of the antigen
    • the blood cells will clump together in a process called agglutination
    • no reaction will occur

  10. This value represents the percentage of formed elements in whole blood:
    • hemoglobin count
    • differential count
    • hemotocrit
    • bleeding time

  11. Hemolytic disease of the newborn may occur when an ____woman conceives with a ____ man.
    • rh positive, rh negative
    • rh positive, rh positive
    • rh negative, rh positive
    • rh negative, rh negative

  12. This serious blood disorder is the result of a single amino acid base substitution in one of the globulin chains in hemoglobin:
    • hemophilia
    • thalassemia
    • sickle-cell anemia
    • jaundice

  13. On average, one microliter of blood contains ________ erythrocytes.
    • 5 million
    • 25 million
    • 260 million
    • 1013 million

  14. If antigen B meets with antibody anti-A, the result would be:
    • agglutination
    • no reaction
    • the patient would comatose
    • the patient would die

  15. If you have type A blood, your plasma holds circulating _________ that will attack ________ erythrocytes.
    • anti-B antibodies; type B
    • anti-A antibodies; type A
    • anti-A antibodies; type A
    • anti-A antibodies; type B

  16. The number of eosinophils increases dramatically:
    • when antibody-labeled materials are present or there is a parasitic infection
    • during an injury to a tissue or a bacterial infection
    • during tissue degeneration or cellular deterioration
    • a, b, and c are correct

  17. The stem cell that produces ALL of the blood cells is called:
    • erythroblasts
    • myeloid stem cells
    • pluripotential stem cells
    • rouleaux

  18. When checking the efficiency of gas exchange at the lungs, blood may be required via:
    • arterial puncture
    • venipuncture
    • puncturing the tip of the finger
    • a, b, and c could be used

  19. In addition to water and proteins, the plasma consists of:
    • erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets
    • electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes
    • albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen
    • a, b, and c are correct

  20. The common pathway of coagulation begins with the:
    • sticking of platelets to damaged tissue
    • activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen
    • activation of a clotting factor that converts prothrombin to thrombin
    • activation of a clotting factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin

  21. Identify the dense connective tissue structures that are attached to the atrioventricular valves.
    • papillary muscle
    • trabeculae carnae
    • cordae tendinae
    • pectinate muscle

  22. The following is true concerning the endocardium.
    • the endocardium can also be called the pericardial sac.
    • the endocardium lines the inner surface of the sac that surrounds the heart.
    • the endocardium is a two-layered structure: the parietal and visceral layers.
    • the endocardium lines the valves of the heart.

  23. Cardiac muscle cells differ from skeletal muscle cells in
    • having fibers connected to one another at intercalated discs.
    • having fewer mitochondria
    • having striations
    • none of the above are correct

  24. The valves of the heart function to:
    • push blood from one chamber to another
    • prevent backflow of blood into chambers it has just left
    • allow cardiac muscle cells to act in syncytium
    • stimulate the electrical conduction system of the heart

  25. What structure will blood enter NEXT after leaving the myocardioum of the heart?
    • left atrium
    • pulmonary arteries
    • coronary sinus
    • coronary arteries

  26. Which of the following is true concerning the contraction of the heart?
    • the ventricles contract first, followed by the atria
    • cardiac contractions are coordinated by specialized conductive cardiac muscle fibers.
    • cardiac muscle depolarization would not be possible without the activity of the nervous system.
    • the contractions do not occur in any specific repeatable sequence each time.

  27. The pacemaker of the heart that normally sets the heart beat is the:
    • atrioventricular node
    • bundle branches
    • purkinje fibers
    • sinoatrial node

  28. If the heart is regularly beating at a rate of 40 - 50 beats/minute, the part of the conduction system most likely damaged would be the:
    • SA node
    • internodal pathway
    • AV node
    • interventricular bundle (of His)

  29. On the basis of valve structure, which of the following is UNLIKE all the others?
    • left AV valve
    • right AV valve
    • aortic semilunar valve
    • pulmonary semilunar valve

  30. The QRS complex of the electrocardiogram occurs when:
    • depolarization of the ventricles occurs
    • repolarization of the ventricles occurs
    • contraction of the ventricles occurs
    • repolarization of the atrium occurs

  31. A drop of blood leaving the right ventricle would pass through which of the LISTED STRUCTURES thirdly?
    • lungs
    • left atrium
    • pulmonary semilunar valve
    • left ventricle
    • bicuspid valve

  32. The first heart sound corresponds with the:
    • opening of the AV valves
    • closing of the AV valves
    • opening of the semilunar valves
    • closing of the semilunar valves

  33. Most of the energy for cardiac contractions results from aerobic metabolism, thus we should find high concentrations of all BUT which of the following in cardiac cells?
    • glycogen
    • mitochondria
    • myoglobin
    • a, b, and c are correct

  34. Which of the chambers of the heart can hold the greatest volume of blood?
    • right ventricle
    • left ventricle
    • both chambers hold the same volume of blood

  35. The double-pump function of the heart includes the right side, which serves as the ______circuit pump, while the left side serves as the _______ pump.
    • systemic; pulmonary
    • pulmonary; cardiac
    • pulmonary; systemic

  36. The lung capillaries receive deoxygenated blood from the:
    • pulmonary veins
    • pulmonary arteries
    • aorta
    • superior and inferior vena cava

  37. At the start of atrial systole, the ventricles are filled to around:
    • 10 % of capacity
    • 30 % of capacity
    • 50 % of capacity
    • 70 % of capcity

  38. The amount of blood ejected by the left ventricle per minute is the:
    • stroke volume
    • cardiac output
    • end-diastolic volume
    • end-systolic volume

  39. The factor that prevents tetany of cardiac muscle is:
    • the cardiac muscle fibers are specialized for contraction
    • the refractory period of cardiac muscle is relatively brief
    • the action potential of the muscle triggers a single contraction
    • the muscle cell completes its contraction before the membrane can respond to an additional stimulus

  40. During ventricular systole, when the pressure in the left ventricle rises above that in the left atrium:
    • the left AV valve closes
    • the left AV valve opens
    • the aortic valve closes
    • all the valves close

  41. During isovolumetric systole, pressure is highest in the:
    • left atrium
    • left ventricle
    • aorta

  42. What causes the plateau during the cardiac muscle action potential?
    • opening of the sodium gates
    • closure of the sodium gates
    • opening of the calcium gates
    • opening of the potassium gates

  43. When a chamber of the heart fills with blood and prepares for the start of the next cardiac cycle the heart is in:
    • systole
    • ventricular ejection
    • diastole
    • isovolumetric contraction

  44. Each of the following will increase cardiac output EXCEPT:
    • increase in venous return
    • increase in heart rate
    • increase in parasympathetic nerve stimulation
    • increase in filling time

EXAM II

  1. An artery can be distinguished from a vein by all of the following means EXCEPT:
    • arterial walls have three layers, while the wall of veins have two layers.
    • arterial walls are thicker and strong, they retain their round shape, while those of veins are thinner and tend to collapse.
    • in cross-section, the epithelial lining of the tunica interna of an artery appears to be scalloped, while that of a vein is smooth.

  2. Elastic arteries:
    • are smaller than muscular arteries
    • serve as the cushion to prevent sudden rises in blood pressure from ventricular contraction
    • include the brachial and femoral arteries
    • are also known as distributing arteries

  3. Cardiovascular function is regulated by all of the following EXCEPT:
    • endocrine factors
    • neural factors
    • conscious factors
    • local factors

  4. Vasodilation of local vessels would NOT occur in response to which of the following?
    • increased carbon dioxide
    • decreased pH
    • decreased oxygen
    • vasodilation would occur in response to ALL of the ABOVE

  5. These vessels are important in exchange of substances between blood and the interstitial fluids:
    • elastic arteries
    • muscular arteries
    • arterioles
    • capillaries

  6. The PRIMARY route for substances entering or leaving a continuous capillary is:
    • diffusion and pinocytosis
    • crossing the endothelium through pores
    • active transport across the capillary wall

  7. If the systolic pressure is 120mm Hg and the diastolic pressure is 90mm Hg, the mean arterial pressure (MAP) is:
    • 30mm Hg
    • 210mm Hg
    • 100mm Hg
    • 80mm Hg

  8. The factor that has the greatest effect on vascular resistance is:
    • turbulence of blood within the blood vessels
    • length of the blood vessels
    • viscosity of the blood
    • the diameter of blood vessels

  9. Venous pressure is produced by:
    • the skeletal pump
    • increasing sympathetic activity to the peripheral veins
    • increasing respiratory movements
    • all of the above are CORRECT

  10. The two major factors affecting blood flow rates are:
    • diameter and length of blood vessels
    • pressure and resistance
    • neural and hormonal control mechanisms
    • turbulence and viscosity

  11. Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure EXCEPT:
    • decrease in blood volume
    • decrease in peripheral resistance
    • increased levels of ANF (atrial natriuretic factor)
    • increased levels of ADH (antidiuretic hormone)

  12. In response to hemorrhage, there is
    • an elevation of blood volume due to the long-term effects of hormones
    • increased sympathetic response
    • increased venous return and increased cardiac output
    • all of the above are CORRECT

  13. An increase in cardiac output normally occurs during:
    • widespread sympathetic stimulation
    • widespread parasympathetic stimulation

  14. The three primary interrelated changes that occur as exercise begins are:
    • decreasing vasodilation, increasing venous return, increasing cardiac output
    • increasing vasodilation, decreasing venous return, increasing cardiac output
    • increasing vasodilation, increasing venous return, increasing cardiac output

  15. Pushing against a fluid generates:
    • hydrostatic pressure
    • osmotic pressure
    • vasoconstriction
    • vasodilation

  16. Along the length of the capillary, blood pressure gradually falls from about:
    • 120 to 80mm Hg
    • 75 to 50mm Hg
    • 35 to 18mm Hg
    • 15 to 5mm Hg

  17. The unidirectional flow of blood in venules and medium-sized veins is maintained by:
    • the muscular walls of the veins
    • pressure from the left ventricles
    • arterial pressure
    • the presence of valves

  18. Identify the structure that serves as a common pathway for both food and air.
    • nasopharynx
    • oropharynx
    • laryngopharynx
    • larynx

  19. Identify the functional unit of the lungs.
    • bronchiole
    • alveolar duct
    • alveolus
    • bronchus

  20. The region whose superior border is the internal nares is the:
    • nasopharynx
    • oropharynx
    • nasal cavity
    • larynx

  21. The cartilage that has the shape of a complete and continuous ring is the _________.
    • thyroid cartilage
    • cricoid cartilage
    • cartilage rings of the trachea
    • epiglottis

  22. Primary bronchi supply air to the
    • lungs
    • lobes of the lungs
    • bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs
    • alveoli

  23. Dilation and constriction of the bronchioles are possible because of the presence of:
    • bands of smooth muscle encircling the lumen
    • the presence of C-shaped cartilaginous rings
    • epithelium containing cilia
    • elastic fibers in the alveoli

  24. The serous membrane in contact with the lung is the:
    • visceral pleura
    • parietal pleura
    • pulmonary mesentery

  25. Identify the physical principle that allows for pulmonary ventilation.
    • Boyle’s law
    • Dalton’s law
    • Henry’s law
    • Graham’s law

  26. Identify the stage of the respiratory process describing the movement of air across the respiratory membrane.
    • cellular respiration
    • pulmonary ventilation
    • external respiration

  27. Air moves into the lungs because:
    • contraction of the diaphragm decreases the volume of the pleural cavity
    • the gas pressure in the lungs is less than atmospheric pressure
    • the thorax is muscular
    • the volume of the lungs decreases with inspiration

  28. When the diaphragm and the external intercostals muscles relax:
    • the volume of the thorax increases
    • the volume of the thorax decreases
    • the volume of the lungs increases
    • the lungs collapse

  29. Most of the carbon dioxide transported by blood is:
    • dissolved in plasma
    • carbaminohemoglobin
    • bicarbonate ion
    • solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells

  30. The chloride shift occurs when
    • bicarbonate ions leave the red blood cells
    • hydrogen ions leave the red blood cells
    • carbonic acid is formed
    • carbonic anhydrase in unavailable

  31. The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately
    • 40mm Hg
    • 45mm Hg
    • 100mm Hg
    • 50mm Hg

  32. Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the __________ muscle(s).
    • scalenes
    • diaphragm
    • external intercostal
    • rectus abdominus

  33. If a person inhales as deeply as possible and then blows the air out until he cannot exhale any more, the amount he expelled would be his
    • tidal volume
    • vital capacity
    • total lung volume
    • expiratory reserve volume

  34. Pulmonary surfactant is a phospholipid secretion produced by alveolar cells to:
    • increase the surface area of the alveoli
    • reduce the cohesive force of water molecules and lower surface tension
    • increase the cohesive force of air molecules and raise surface tension
    • reduce the attractive forces of oxygen molecules and increase surface tension

  35. If there is a partial pressure of oxygen of 104mm Hg and a partial pressure carbon dioxide of 40mm Hg in the alveoli, and a partial pressure of oxygen of 40mm Hg and a partial pressure carbon dioxide of 45mm Hg within the pulmonary blood, there will be a net diffusion of:
    • Carbon dioxide into the blood from alveoli; oxygen from the blood into alveoli
    • Oxygen and carbon dioxide into the blood from the alveoli
    • Oxygen and carbon dioxide from the blood into the alveoli
    • Oxygen into the blood from the alveoli; carbon dioxide from the blood into the alveoli

  36. Factors that cause a decrease in hemoglobin saturation at a given oxygen partial pressure are:
    • increasing partial pressure of oxygen; decreasing carbon dioxide, increasing temperature
    • increasing temperature, decreasing carbon dioxide, decreasing partial pressure of oxygen
    • increasing temperature, decreasing pH, increasing carbon dioxide

  37. Alveolar ventilation can be calculated by:
    • adding the tidal volume to the inspiratory reserve volume
    • adding the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume
    • subtracting the tidal volume from the inspiratory reserve
    • subtracting the dead space from the tidal volume

  38. Decreased amounts of carbon dioxide concentrations in the bronchioles cause:
    • no effect
    • a decrease in bronchiolar constriction
    • an increase in bronchiolar constriction

  39. If a person is breathing 15 times a minute and has a tidal volume of 500 ml, the total minute respiratory volume is:
    • 7500 min/ml
    • 515 ml
    • 7500 ml/min
    • 5150 ml

  40. The most effective means of increasing alveolar ventilation is:
    • increase rapid shallow breathing
    • breathe normally
    • breathe slowly and deeply

  41. The correct sequential transport of oxygen from tissue capillaries to oxygen consumption in cells is:
    • lung, alveoli, plasma, erythrocytes, cells
    • erythrocytes, plasma, interstitial fluid, cells
    • plasma, erythrocytes, alveoli, cells
    • erythrocytes, interstitial fluid, plasma, cells

  42. In the pulmonary capillaries, the bicarbonate ion is always returned to the ______ before diffusing into the lungs as carbon dioxide.
    • RBC
    • interstitial fluid
    • alveoli
    • plasma

EXAM III

  1. Identify a substance that stimulates the production of pancreatic enzymes.
    • Cholecystokinin (CCK)
    • Secretin
    • Pepsin
    • Gastrin

  2. Identify the cell that produces hydrochloric acid (HCl).
    • Goblet cells
    • Parietal cells
    • Chief cells
    • Enteroendocrine cells

  3. Identify the substance that is a brush border enzyme.
    • Enterokinase
    • Chymotrypsin
    • Intrinsic factor
    • Amylase

  4. Identify the region of the digestive tract involved in nutrient absorption.
    • Duodenum
    • Jejunum
    • Ileum
    • All of the above

  5. Identify the layer that lines the lumen of a digestive organ.
    • Mucosa
    • Submucosa
    • Muscularis externa
    • Adventitia

  6. Which of the following is not a digestive function?
    • Filtration
    • Mechanical processing
    • Absorption
    • Compaction

  7. Movements that occur in the small intestine and function to move the digestive material forward are called
    • Segmentation
    • Pendular movements
    • Peristalsis
    • Mass movements

  8. The outer layer of the root of a tooth is the
    • Pulp chamber
    • Cementum
    • Dentin
    • Pulp

  9. During deglutition (swallowing),
    • the buccal phase is voluntary.
    • respiration temporarily stops during the pharyngeal phase
    • the soft palate is elevated and the epiglottis folds over the glottis in the pharyngeal phase.
    • All the above are correct.

  10. The portion of the stomach that connects to the duodenum is the
    • Fundus
    • Cardia
    • Body
    • Pylorus

  11. Villi are:
    • ridges in the wall of the stomach.
    • transverse folds in the mucosa of the small intestine.
    • finger-like projections on the surface of the mucosa of the small intestine
    • sacculations in the colon.

  12. Which of the following is a function of the liver?
    • Synthesis and secretion of bile.
    • Production of a buffered secretion into the duodenum.
    • Production of amylase and lipase.
    • Storage of bile.

  13. The cephalic phase of gastric secretion is triggered by the
    • sight, thought or smell of food.
    • entry of food into the stomach.
    • entry of chyme into the small intestine.
    • entry of chyme into the large intestine.

  14. At the splenic flexure, the colon becomes the
    • Ascending colon
    • Transverse colon
    • Descending colon
    • Sigmoid colon

  15. Most products of lipid digestion are absorbed by
    • Capillaries
    • Lymphatic vessels
    • The interstitial fluids

  16. Decreased levels of bile salts in the bile would interfere with digestion of:
    • Protein
    • Fat
    • Disaccharides
    • Complex carbohydrates

  17. Enterogastric reflexes
    • Stimulate gastric motility
    • Increase gastric secretion
    • Are triggered when the duodenum stretches with entry of chyme
    • Are hormonal responses

  18. In response to the arrival of acidic chyme into the duodenum,
    • blood levels of secretin rise
    • blood levels of cholecystokinin fall
    • blood levels of gastrin rise

  19. The actions involved in the mechanical processing of food include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • Squashing food with the tongue
    • Tearing or crushing food with the teeth
    • Absorption
    • Churning or swirling of foods by the stomach

  20. The functions of the gall bladder include:
    • Storage of bile
    • Secretion of bile
    • Secretion of gastrin
    • Secretion of acids to assist the duodenum in breakdown of lipids

  21. Which of the following are true of mesenteries?
    • They suspend portions of the digestive tract within the peritoneal cavity.
    • They provide on access route to digestive structures for nerves and blood vessels.
    • The mesentery that supports the liver is called the falciform ligament.
    • All of the above are CORRECT.

  22. The esophagus:
    • is a hollow, muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach.
    • always remains open.
    • is reinforced by cartilaginous structures.
    • is under voluntary nervous control
    • All of the above are CORRECT

  23. The enteroendocrine cells of the intestinal glands are responsible for producing the intestinal hormones:
    • gastrin and pepsinogen
    • enterokinase and aminopeptidase
    • cholecystokinin and secretin

  24. The external anal sphincter is under voluntary control.
    • True
    • False

  25. Which one of the following organs is not part of the digestive system?
    • liver
    • gall bladder
    • spleen
    • pancreas

  26. Which of the layers of the digestive tube is most responsible for peristalsis along the esophagus?
    • mucosa
    • submuscosa
    • muscularis mucosa
    • mucularis externa

  27. The submandibular gland produces saliva, which is:
    • nearly 100% mucus in secretion
    • nearly 100% serous in secretion
    • both mucus and serous in secretion
    • neither mucus or serous in secretion

  28. The contractions of the stomach are inhibited by:
    • secretin
    • gastrin
    • pepsinogen
    • trypsin

  29. An enzyme not found in pancreatic juice is:
    • lipase
    • amylase
    • chymotrypsin
    • disaccharidase

  30. What happens to salivary amylase after it is swallowed?
    • It is compacted and becomes part of the feces
    • It is absorbed and re-secreted by the salivary glands
    • It is absorbed in the stomach and broken down into amino acids in the liver
    • It is digested and absorbed in the small intestine

  31. Undigested food residues are moved through the large intestine in the following sequence:
    • cecum, colon, rectum
    • colon, cecum, rectum
    • ileum, colon, rectum
    • duodenum, jejunum, ileum

  32. The longitudinal ribbon of smooth muscle visible on the outer surfaces of the colon just beneath the serosa are the:
    • Haustrae
    • Taenia coli
    • Epiploic appendages
    • Vermiform appendix

  33. A hepatic triad is a structure of the liver that includes branches of the:
    • Hilus, bile duct, cystic duct
    • Bile duct, hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery
    • Caudate lobe, quadrate lobe, hepatic duct
    • Left lobe, right lobe, falciform ligament

  34. Identify the kidney structure where the renal corpuscles are located.
    • Renal medulla
    • Renal cortex
    • Renal papilla
    • Renal sinus

  35. Identify the portion of the nephron that is attached to the collecting (connecting) tubule.
    • Proximal convoluted tubule
    • Distal convoluted tubule
    • Ascending limb of the Loop of Henle
    • Descending limb of the Loop of Henle

  36. The urinary system does all of the following EXCEPT:
    • Regulates plasma concentrations of ions including sodium, potassium and chloride
    • Contributes to stabilizing blood pH
    • Secretes nutrients such as glucose molecules
    • Eliminates organic waste products

  37. Which of the following are true of the kidneys?
    • They are located in a position that is retroperitoneal.
    • A renal capsule surrounds the kidneys.
    • They are held in place by renal fascia.
    • All of the above are true.

  38. An obstruction in the glomerulus would affect the flow of blood into the:
    • Renal artery
    • Efferent arteriole
    • Afferent arteriole
    • Peritubular capillaries

EXAM IV

  1. Dilation of the afferent arteriole and glomerular capillaries and constriction of the efferent arterioles causes:
    1. An elevation of glomerular blood pressure
    2. A decrease in glomerular blood pressure
    3. A decrease in glomerular filtration rate

  2. The glomerular filtration rate is regulated by:
    1. Autoregulation
    2. Hormonal regulation
    3. Autonomic regulation
    4. All of the above are CORRECT.

  3. Identify the region of the nephron characterized by sodium/chloride cotransport carriers.
    1. Proximal convoluted tubule
    2. Distal convoluted tubule
    3. Ascending limb of the Loop of Henle
    4. Descending limb of the Loop of Henle

  4. Formation of a concentration gradient within the medulla of the kidney is the function of:
    1. proximal convoluted tubule
    2. the renal corpuscle
    3. distal convoluted tubule
    4. loop of Henle

  5. Small organic compounds including glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed into renal tubular cells along with sodium ions by
    1. diffusion
    2. cotransport
    3. countertransport

  6. Three common substances which are secreted from the renal filtrate by tubular cells include:
    1. hydrogen, bicarbonate, sodium
    2. hydrogen, ammonium, potassium
    3. bicarbonate, sodium, chloride

  7. When the level of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) decreases
    1. more urine is produced
    2. less urine is produced
    3. more water is reabsorbed by the nephron and collecting duct
    4. urine is more concentrated

  8. Characteristics of carrier-mediated transport processes include
    1. a carrier protein that can bind only one type of substance
    2. a carrier protein that normally can move materials in either direction across the membrane
    3. no saturation point
    4. a distribution of only one type of carrier in any one cell membrane

  9. The mechanisms for maintaining the solute concentration gradient in the renal medulla require:
    1. the vasa recta to absorb water and salts which are brought into the kidney interstitium
    2. the ascending limb of the loop of Henle to be freely permeable to water
    3. the diffusion of urea by the loop of Henle
    4. the filtrate within the loop of Henle to become hypotonic as it progresses into the medulla

  10. What process involves a carrier protein that can transport one substance along its concentration gradient without the expenditure of cellular energy?
    1. active transport
    2. cotransport
    3. facilitated diffusion
    4. counter transport

  11. Each of the following systems of the body is involved in the process of excretion to some degree EXCEPT the:
    1. urinary system
    2. integumentary system
    3. digestive system
    4. endocrine system
    5. respiratory system

  12. Each of the following is a characteristic of a normal urine sample EXCEPT
    1. amber (yellowish) color
    2. cloudy
    3. acidic pH
    4. specific gravity greater than 1.0

  13. During the micturition reflex
    1. the internal sphincter must be consciously relaxed
    2. there is decreased activity of the neurons that control the smooth muscle of the bladder
    3. the external sphincter relaxes due to voluntary response
  14. How do the reproductive cells of males and females differ in terms of production and storage ability?
    • the male system produces more gametes than does the female system
    • the male system produces gametes for more of the lifespan than does the female system
    • mature sperm are stored for long periods in the reproductive tract while the eggs of the female are not mature when they are stored
    • All of the above are correct

  15. Structures located within lobules of the testes are the
    1. seminiferous tubules
    2. straight tubules
    3. epididymis
    4. the tunica albuginea

  16. Tubules that originate at the rete testes and connect to the epididymis are
    1. ductus deferens
    2. seminiferous tubules
    3. efferent ducts
    4. ejaculatory ducts

  17. Interstitial cells of Leydig produce
    1. sperm
    2. inhibin
    3. nutrients
    4. testosterone

  18. The dense region of connective tissue within the testes where the rete testes is located is the:
    1. tunica vaginalis
    2. mediastinum
    3. tunica albuginea
    4. epididymis

  19. Sperm develop from stem cells called
    1. spermatids
    2. spermatogonia
    3. primary spermatocytes
    4. secondary spermatocytes

  20. The process whereby spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa is called:
    1. mitosis
    2. spermiogenesis
    3. spermatogenesis
    4. diploid division

  21. The following is a list of structures of the male reproductive tract.
    1. ductus deferens
    2. urethra
    3. seminiferous tubule
    4. epididymis

    The pathway of the spermatozoa from the testes to the exterior of the body through tubules in the correct order is:
    1. 3, 1, 4, 2
    2. 4, 3, 1, 2
    3. 3, 1, 4, 2
    4. 3, 4, 1, 2

  22. The male accessory gland that produces a mucus secretion is the:
    1. prostate gland
    2. bulbourethral gland
    3. seminal vesicle
    4. vestibular glands

  23. The role of the pituitary hormone LH in males is to:
    1. stimulate the interstitial cells to produce testosterone
    2. stimulate the Sertoli cells to produce androgens
    3. initiate sperm production in the testes
    4. influence sexual behaviors and sex drive

  24. The uterus is supported by
    1. round ligaments
    2. broad ligament
    3. uterosacral ligaments
    4. All of the above

  25. The superior portion of the uterus that projects above the fallopian tubes is the
    1. isthmus
    2. fundus
    3. body
    4. cervix

  26. Which of the following statements concerning oogenensis is true ?
    1. at the time of birth the ovaries contain only primary oocytes
    2. ova develop from stem cells called oogonia
    3. an ovum will only complete meiosis if it is fertilized
    4. all oogonia that can form new gametes are present in the developing embryo
    5. All of the above are correct

  27. All of the following occur during the ovarian cycle, EXCEPT
    1. primordial follicles undergo development and ultimately become a Graafian follicle
    2. ovulation occurs around day 14 of a 28-day cycle
    3. follicle cells that remain after ovulation form a structure called the corpus albicans
    4. cells surrounding the ovum at ovulation make up the corona radiata

  28. The surge of LH that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers
    1. ovulation
    2. follicle maturation
    3. menstruation
    4. menopause

  29. A rise in the blood levels of FSH at the beginning of the ovarian cycle is responsible for
    1. ovulation
    2. menopause
    3. follicle maturation
    4. menstruation

  30. During menses
    1. a new uterine lining is formed
    2. secretory glands and blood vessels become most developed in the endometrium
    3. the old functional layer is sloughed off
    4. the corpus luteum is formed

  31. In what phase of meiosis does the developing oocyte remain within the primordial follicle?
    1. Metaphase of Meisosis I
    2. Prophase of Meiosis I
    3. Metaphase of Meiosis II
    4. Prophase of Meiosis II

  32. The developing follicle cells secrete
    1. FSH
    2. Gonadotropic releasing hormone
    3. estradiol
    4. progesterone

  33. The phases of the menstrual cycle, in correct order include which of the following?
    (1) proliferative phase
    (2) menses
    (3) secretory phase

    1. 2, 1, 3
    2. 3, 2, 1
    3. 2, 3, 1
    4. 1, 3, 2

  34. Identify the cell involved in cell-mediated immunity.
    1. NK cell
    2. macrophage
    3. B lymphocyte
    4. T lymphocyte

  35. Identify the leukocyte (white blood cell) considered to be the first line of defense against entry of a pathogen.
    1. NK cell
    2. neutrophil
    3. macrophage
    4. B lymphocyte

  36. Identify the lymphoid structure that filters blood.
    1. lymph node
    2. tonsil
    3. thymus
    4. spleen

  37. Identify the process whereby antibodies are required.
    1. inflammatory response
    2. phagocytosis
    3. humoral response
    4. cell-mediated response

  38. Identify the type of immunity involved in administration of a vaccine.
    1. induced active immunity
    2. natural active immunity
    3. induced passive immunity
    4. natural passive immunity

  39. The primary function of the lymphatic system is
    1. the production, maintenance and distribution of plasma proteins
    2. the production, maintenance and distribution of lymphocytes
    3. the transport of hormones
    4. circulation of nutrients

  40. Defense of the body against a particular bacteria or virus is provided by:
    1. nonspecific immunity
    2. specific immunity
    3. immunological surveillance
    4. fever

  41. Characteristics of specific defenses include the following EXCEPT:
    1. specificity
    2. memory
    3. coordination of immune cells, lymphoid tissue and chemicals
    4. ALL of the ABOVE are CORRECT

  42. An inflammatory response is triggered when
    1. the area becomes red, swollen and painful
    2. tissue has begun repair
    3. mast cells release histamine, serotonin, and heparin
    4. neutrophils phagocytize bacteria



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